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Physiotherapy Quiz

1 / 201

Which device is used to check muscle response in
electrotherapy?

2 / 201

One contraindication of TENS:

3 / 201

Which modality promotes collagen alignment and tissue
healing?

4 / 201

LASER therapy wavelength used in physiotherapy is
generally in:

5 / 201

Low-frequency current is defined as:

6 / 201

Which current is used for facial paralysis therapy?

7 / 201

The "gate control theory" is most associated with:

8 / 201

Diathermy is most useful for treating:

9 / 201

Which is NOT a physiological effect of heat?

10 / 201

Which electrotherapy modality uses piezoelectric crystals?

11 / 201

Contraindication for electrotherapy in physiotherapy is: 

12 / 201

Which is an effect of pulsed shortwave therapy?

13 / 201

What is the minimal recommended frequency for ultrasound
in deep tissues?

14 / 201

The current type best suited for denervated muscle is:

15 / 201

Infrared therapy primarily provides:

16 / 201

Primary aim of galvanic current in acute injury:

17 / 201

Electrotherapy should be avoided over:

18 / 201

In electrotherapy, "duty cycle" refers to:

19 / 201

Biphasic pulsed current is often used in:

20 / 201

What is the typical treatment time for ultrasound therapy?

21 / 201

Contraindication for NMES includes:

22 / 201

EMG biofeedback is used to:

23 / 201

What type of current is used in neuromuscular electrical
stimulation (NMES)?

24 / 201

The active form of electrode in iontophoresis for delivering
negative ions is:

25 / 201

Which of the following is not a benefit of electrotherapy?

26 / 201

The average frequency used in high-frequency
electrotherapy is:

27 / 201

Continuous shortwave diathermy is used for:

28 / 201

What kind of wave is used in SWD?

29 / 201

Pulsed galvanic current is primarily used for:

30 / 201

In galvanic stimulation, the active electrode for pain relief is:

31 / 201

The primary mechanism of microcurrent therapy is:

32 / 201

An advantage of IFT over TENS is:

33 / 201

Which type of TENS is used for chronic pain?

34 / 201

Which electrode setup is best for deep tissues in IFT?

35 / 201

Which frequency range is used in ultrasound therapy?

36 / 201

The type of current used in TENS is:

37 / 201

LASER therapy is contraindicated in:

38 / 201

The duty cycle in pulsed ultrasound affects:

39 / 201

Continuous ultrasound produces primarily:

40 / 201

The depth of penetration of 1 MHz ultrasound is:

41 / 201

A contraindication for ultrasound therapy is:

42 / 201

Shortwave diathermy produces heat by:

43 / 201

The most commonly used frequency for interferential therapy (IFT)
is:

44 / 201

Iontophoresis delivers medication through the skin using:

45 / 201

Medium-frequency currents range between:

46 / 201

Russian current is used primarily for:

47 / 201

Faradic current is a type of:

48 / 201

Which current is commonly used for iontophoresis?

49 / 201

The primary physiological effect of TENS is:

50 / 201

The frequency of TENS used for pain modulation is usually:

51 / 201

The function of the patella is to:

52 / 201

The anatomical term for the heel bone is:

53 / 201

The hamstrings cross how many joints?

54 / 201

The role of the transverse abdominis in core stabilization is:

55 / 201

A first-class lever in the body is seen in:

56 / 201

The mechanical advantage of a second-class lever is:

57 / 201

A pulley in the human body acts to:

58 / 201

Which muscle helps in locking the knee in full extension?

59 / 201

During walking, the muscle that prevents hip drop is:

60 / 201

The latissimus dorsi is responsible for all except:

61 / 201

The vastus medialis is important for:

62 / 201

An isokinetic contraction maintains:

63 / 201

The muscle that performs opposition of the thumb is:

64 / 201

A muscle with broad origin and narrow insertion is:

65 / 201

Shoulder external rotation is performed by:

66 / 201

Muscles that stabilize the scapula include all except:

67 / 201

Plantarflexion is mainly produced by:

68 / 201

In scapulohumeral rhythm, for every 3° of shoulder
abduction, scapula contributes:

69 / 201

The antagonist of wrist extension is:

70 / 201

Flexion of the trunk is primarily done by:

71 / 201

The force that causes rotation around an axis is called:

72 / 201

Pronation of the forearm is performed by:

73 / 201

The hip joint is a type of:

74 / 201

The muscle that initiates shoulder abduction is:

75 / 201

The main action of the subscapularis is:

76 / 201

The deltoid muscle is a prime mover for:

77 / 201

The line of gravity in a standing posture passes:

78 / 201

A hinge joint permits movement in how many planes?

79 / 201

The biceps brachii performs which type of contraction during
a slow controlled elbow extension?

80 / 201

Supination of the forearm occurs around which axis?

81 / 201

Dorsiflexion occurs at which joint?

82 / 201

The direction of muscle fibers in the rectus abdominis is:

83 / 201

Movement away from the midline in the transverse plane is:

84 / 201

The muscle primarily responsible for hip flexion is:

85 / 201

The gastrocnemius acts over how many joints?

86 / 201

Elbow flexion is an example of:

87 / 201

The rotator cuff is primarily responsible for:

88 / 201

A synergist muscle:

89 / 201

The term used for a muscle that opposes the action of the
prime mover is:

90 / 201

The axis for hip abduction occurs in which plane?

91 / 201

The scapula moves in which pattern during full shoulder
flexion?

92 / 201

An example of a closed kinetic chain exercise is:

93 / 201

The prime mover for knee extension is:

94 / 201

During eccentric contraction, the muscle:

95 / 201

An isometric contraction is characterized by:

96 / 201

A movement that brings a limb toward the body’s midline is called:

97 / 201

Shoulder abduction occurs in the:

98 / 201

Movement in the frontal plane occurs around which axis?

99 / 201

The sagittal plane divides the body into:

100 / 201

Kinesiology is the study of:

101 / 201

Muscle fatigue during high-intensity exercise is due to:

102 / 201

Which brain area controls respiratory rhythm?

103 / 201

In ECG, the T wave represents:

104 / 201

The bicarbonate buffer system maintains:

105 / 201

What mechanism allows more oxygen to be released at the
tissue level?

106 / 201

The principal catabolic hormone is:

107 / 201

Vital capacity is the sum of:

108 / 201

Which parameter increases during isometric exercise?

109 / 201

The end-diastolic volume is also known as:

110 / 201

The major contributor to peripheral resistance is:

111 / 201

The stretch reflex is a:

112 / 201

In hyperventilation, the blood becomes:

113 / 201

Which is the pacemaker potential generator in the heart?

114 / 201

Lactate threshold is defined as the point when lactate
production exceeds:

115 / 201

Which of the following is NOT a physiological response to
endurance training?

116 / 201

What is the physiological response to high altitude?

117 / 201

Synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction leads
to:

118 / 201

The muscle responsible for quiet inspiration is:

119 / 201

FEV1 is the volume of air expelled in the first second of:

120 / 201

What causes the ‘second wind’ phenomenon in exercise?

121 / 201

Proprioceptors are responsible for sensing:

122 / 201

Which of the following increases during sympathetic
stimulation?

123 / 201

What is the primary driver of ventilation during intense
exercise?

124 / 201

A decrease in baroreceptor sensitivity results in:

125 / 201

The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that:

126 / 201

Which type of muscle fiber is most fatigue-resistant?

127 / 201

What happens to blood flow to the working muscles during
exercise?

128 / 201

Which part of the nervous system is primarily responsible for
voluntary muscle control?

129 / 201

Which of the following increases during aerobic training?

130 / 201

Which system is predominantly active during endurance
training?

131 / 201

The primary energy system for a 400-meter sprint is:

132 / 201

In spasticity, the velocity-dependent increase in tone is due to
overactivity of:

133 / 201

The respiratory exchange ratio (RER) of 1.0 indicates
predominant usage of:

134 / 201

The main function of the cerebellum in motor control is to:

135 / 201

During exercise, systolic blood pressure:

136 / 201

The 'all or none' principle applies to:

137 / 201

Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is mainly caused by:

138 / 201

Which system provides the fastest source of ATP?

139 / 201

During prolonged exercise, body temperature is regulated
primarily by:

140 / 201

Which hormone is most responsible for fluid retention during
exercise?

141 / 201

The ventilatory equivalent increases significantly:

142 / 201

Cardiac output increases during exercise mainly due to:

143 / 201

The primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction
is:

144 / 201

Golgi tendon organ primarily detects:

145 / 201

Muscle spindle is sensitive to:

146 / 201

In a healthy adult, the normal value of VO₂ max ranges from:

147 / 201

The anaerobic threshold is best described as the point during
exercise when:

148 / 201

Stroke Volume is defined as the amount of blood ejected from
the ventricle per:

149 / 201

The primary energy system used during the first 10 seconds
of a high-intensity activity is the:

150 / 201

The plantar flexors of the ankle include:

151 / 201

Which of these is a hinge joint?

152 / 201

The liver is located in:

153 / 201

The nerve injured in wrist drop is:

154 / 201

The thenar muscles are supplied by:

155 / 201

The diaphragm has how many openings?

156 / 201

Cauda equina begins at the level of:

157 / 201

The spinal cord ends at:

158 / 201

Coracobrachialis is pierced by:

159 / 201

The main weight-bearing bone of the leg is:

160 / 201

The pulmonary artery carries:

161 / 201

Which cranial nerve innervates SCM and trapezius?

162 / 201

The muscle used in jaw closing is:

163 / 201

The anatomical term for the shoulder blade is:

164 / 201

The ligament that prevents hyperextension of spine is:

165 / 201

The innermost intercostal muscles help in:

166 / 201

The bursa commonly inflamed in housemaid’s knee is:

167 / 201

The nerve root of the Achilles reflex is:

168 / 201

The muscle that flexes both hip and knee:

169 / 201

The knee joint is a:

170 / 201

The largest carpal bone is:

171 / 201

The anatomical snuff box is bounded laterally by:

172 / 201

The nerve root involved in patellar reflex is:

173 / 201

The palpable landmark at C7 is called:

174 / 201

The chief muscle for shoulder abduction (0-15°) is:

175 / 201

The triceps surae group includes:

176 / 201

The saddle joint is found at the:

177 / 201

The femoral artery continues as the:

178 / 201

SITS muscles refer to:

179 / 201

The muscle that unlocks the knee is:

180 / 201

The nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome is:

181 / 201

The deltoid muscle is innervated by:

182 / 201

Cubital tunnel syndrome involves which nerve?

183 / 201

The strongest ligament in the human body is:

184 / 201

Pes anserinus is formed by all except:

185 / 201

Erb’s palsy affects which part of the brachial plexus?

186 / 201

Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of:

187 / 201

The median nerve supplies all except:

188 / 201

The main nerve supply to diaphragm is:

189 / 201

The bone forming the heel is:

190 / 201

The biceps brachii is a:

191 / 201

The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the:

192 / 201

The muscle of mastication is:

193 / 201

The ligament that prevents anterior displacement of tibia on
femur is:

194 / 201

Foot drop is most commonly due to injury of:

195 / 201

The rotator cuff does not include:

196 / 201

Which muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve?

197 / 201

The primary extensor of the elbow is:

198 / 201

The muscle responsible for hip flexion is:

199 / 201

The longest nerve in the human body is:

200 / 201

Which of the following is a lower motor neuron lesion?

201 / 201

The longest nerve in the human body is: