2 Physiotherapy Quiz 1 / 201 Which device is used to check muscle response in electrotherapy? A) EMG machine B) Thermometer C) Dynamometer D) Ultrasound scanner 2 / 201 One contraindication of TENS: A) Over pregnant abdomen B) Tennis elbow C) Frozen shoulder D) Low back strain 3 / 201 Which modality promotes collagen alignment and tissue healing? A) TENS B) IFT C) Ultrasound D) NMES 4 / 201 LASER therapy wavelength used in physiotherapy is generally in: A) Infrared range B) UV range C) Microwave range D) Radio wave range 5 / 201 Low-frequency current is defined as: A) <1000 Hz B) 1–3 MHz C) 4000–5000 Hz D) >10000 Hz 6 / 201 Which current is used for facial paralysis therapy? A) Faradic current B) TENS C) Galvanic interrupted D) High-frequency current 7 / 201 The "gate control theory" is most associated with: A) TENS B) LASER C) Ultrasound D) Infrared 8 / 201 Diathermy is most useful for treating: A) Fractures B) Deep soft tissue injuries C) Superficial wounds D) Joint laxity 9 / 201 Which is NOT a physiological effect of heat? A) Vasodilation B) Increased metabolism C) Vasoconstriction D) Pain relief 10 / 201 Which electrotherapy modality uses piezoelectric crystals? A) Ultrasound B) TENS C) IFT D) SWD 11 / 201 Contraindication for electrotherapy in physiotherapy is: A) Muscle weakness B) Over open wound with infection C) Post-fracture rehab D) Postural pain 12 / 201 Which is an effect of pulsed shortwave therapy? A) Cellular healing B) Intense heating C) High-frequency vibration D) Laser-like effects 13 / 201 What is the minimal recommended frequency for ultrasound in deep tissues? A) 3 MHz B) 1 MHz C) 5 MHz D) 500 kHz 14 / 201 The current type best suited for denervated muscle is: A) TENS B) Interrupted direct current C) Biphasic AC D) Interferentia 15 / 201 Infrared therapy primarily provides: A) Electrical stimulation B) Superficial heat C) Magnetic energy D) Vibration 16 / 201 Primary aim of galvanic current in acute injury: A) Muscle contraction B) Pain relief C) Edema control D) ROM improvement 17 / 201 Electrotherapy should be avoided over: A) Tendon B) Carotid sinus C) Muscle belly D) Bony prominence 18 / 201 In electrotherapy, "duty cycle" refers to: A) Frequency B) Duration C) On/off time ratio D) Voltage 19 / 201 Biphasic pulsed current is often used in: A) Shortwave diathermy B) TENS and NMES C) LASER D) Infrared 20 / 201 What is the typical treatment time for ultrasound therapy? A) 1–2 minutes B) 5–10 minutes C) 20 minutes D) 30–45 minutes 21 / 201 Contraindication for NMES includes: A) Post-fracture B) Pacemaker C) Muscle weakness D) Tendinitis 22 / 201 EMG biofeedback is used to: A) Stimulate tissues B) Monitor and train muscle activity C) Deliver drugs D) Generate heat 23 / 201 What type of current is used in neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)? A) Direct current B) Alternating or pulsed current C) High-frequency sound D) Static current 24 / 201 The active form of electrode in iontophoresis for delivering negative ions is: A) Cathode B) Anode C) Dispersive pad D) Ground 25 / 201 Which of the following is not a benefit of electrotherapy? A) Pain reduction B) Cancer treatment C) Muscle stimulation D) Edema control 26 / 201 The average frequency used in high-frequency electrotherapy is: A) 100–200 Hz B) 1–2 kHz C) >1 MHz D) <50 Hz 27 / 201 Continuous shortwave diathermy is used for: A) Deep heating B) Surface massage C) Toning muscles D) Fat reduction 28 / 201 What kind of wave is used in SWD? A) Light wave B) Radio wave C) Sound wave D) Infrared wave 29 / 201 Pulsed galvanic current is primarily used for: A) Wound healing B) Muscle strength C) Bone growth D) Pain management 30 / 201 In galvanic stimulation, the active electrode for pain relief is: A) Negative (cathode) B) Positive (anode) C) Neutral D) Variable 31 / 201 The primary mechanism of microcurrent therapy is: A) Heating tissues B) Contracting muscles C) Promoting cellular repair D) Reducing ROM 32 / 201 An advantage of IFT over TENS is: A) Deeper penetration B) Lower cost C) Simpler setup D) Higher heat generation 33 / 201 Which type of TENS is used for chronic pain? A) High frequency B) Burst mode C) Low frequency (acupuncture-like) D) Intense mode 34 / 201 Which electrode setup is best for deep tissues in IFT? A) Quadripolar B) Bipolar C) Monopolar D) Tripolar 35 / 201 Which frequency range is used in ultrasound therapy? A) 100–500 Hz B) 1–10 Hz C) 1–3 MHz D) 10–50 kHz 36 / 201 The type of current used in TENS is: A) Pulsed biphasic current B) Direct current C) High-frequency continuous current D) Galvanic current 37 / 201 LASER therapy is contraindicated in: A) Wound healing B) Pregnancy (abdominal area) C) Scar tissue D) Post-surgical inflammation 38 / 201 The duty cycle in pulsed ultrasound affects: A) Current type B) Thermal vs. non-thermal effects C) Amplitude D) Frequency 39 / 201 Continuous ultrasound produces primarily: A) Mechanical effects B) Thermal effects C) Chemical effects D) No effects 40 / 201 The depth of penetration of 1 MHz ultrasound is: A) 3–5 cm B) 1–2 cm C) 6–8 cm D) <1 cm 41 / 201 A contraindication for ultrasound therapy is: A) Tendonitis B) Bursitis C) Over malignancy D) Muscle spasm 42 / 201 Shortwave diathermy produces heat by: A) Electromagnetic radiation B) Sound waves C) Light waves D) Radiofrequency 43 / 201 The most commonly used frequency for interferential therapy (IFT) is: A) 1 kHz B) 4 kHz C) 10 kHz D) 400 Hz 44 / 201 Iontophoresis delivers medication through the skin using: A) Electrical current B) Mechanical pressure C) Heat D) Ultrasound 45 / 201 Medium-frequency currents range between: A) 0–1000 Hz B) 1000–10000 Hz C) 10–50 kHz D) >1 MHz 46 / 201 Russian current is used primarily for: A) Pain relief B) Wound healing C) Muscle strengthening D) Bone healing 47 / 201 Faradic current is a type of: A) Interrupted direct current B) Continuous direct current C) Low-frequency alternating current D) Medium-frequency current 48 / 201 Which current is commonly used for iontophoresis? A) Direct current B) Alternating current C) Pulsed current D) High-frequency current 49 / 201 The primary physiological effect of TENS is: A) Muscle strengthening B) Pain relief C) Wound healing D) Muscle re-education 50 / 201 The frequency of TENS used for pain modulation is usually: A) 0–10 Hz B) 100–150 Hz C) 50–100 Hz D) 1000 Hz 51 / 201 The function of the patella is to: A) Reduce knee movement B) Increase leverage for quadriceps C) Decrease joint pressure D) Stabilize ankle movement 52 / 201 The anatomical term for the heel bone is: A) Talus B) Calcaneus C) Navicular D) Cuboid 53 / 201 The hamstrings cross how many joints? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four 54 / 201 The role of the transverse abdominis in core stabilization is: A) Flexion B) Compression of abdominal contents C) Extension D) Rotation 55 / 201 A first-class lever in the body is seen in: A) Neck extension B) Elbow flexion C) Knee flexion D) Shoulder rotation 56 / 201 The mechanical advantage of a second-class lever is: A) Less than 1 B) Equal to 1 C) Greater than 1 D) Negative 57 / 201 A pulley in the human body acts to: A) Change direction of force B) Increase friction C) Reduce torque D) Eliminate movement 58 / 201 Which muscle helps in locking the knee in full extension? A) Vastus medialis oblique B) Popliteus C) Rectus femoris D) Biceps femoris 59 / 201 During walking, the muscle that prevents hip drop is: A) Gluteus medius B) Gluteus maximus C) Iliopsoas D) Piriformis 60 / 201 The latissimus dorsi is responsible for all except: A) Shoulder extension B) Shoulder adduction C) Shoulder abduction D) Internal rotation 61 / 201 The vastus medialis is important for: A) Hip flexion B) Patellar stabilization C) Knee rotation D) Ankle movement 62 / 201 An isokinetic contraction maintains: A) Constant load B) Constant velocity C) Constant length D) Constant tension 63 / 201 The muscle that performs opposition of the thumb is: A) Flexor pollicis longus B) Opponens pollicis C) Abductor pollicis D) Palmaris longus 64 / 201 A muscle with broad origin and narrow insertion is: A) Fan-shaped B) Fusiform C) Strap-like D) Sphincter 65 / 201 Shoulder external rotation is performed by: A) Subscapularis B) Infraspinatus C) Pectoralis major D) Latissimus dorsi 66 / 201 Muscles that stabilize the scapula include all except: A) Rhomboids B) Trapezius C) Deltoid D) Serratus anterior 67 / 201 Plantarflexion is mainly produced by: A) Tibialis anterior B) Gastrocnemius and soleus C) Peroneus brevis D) Extensor digitorum 68 / 201 In scapulohumeral rhythm, for every 3° of shoulder abduction, scapula contributes: A) 2° B) 1° C) 1.5° D) 0.5° 69 / 201 The antagonist of wrist extension is: A) Wrist flexor muscles B) Supinator C) Brachialis D) Triceps 70 / 201 Flexion of the trunk is primarily done by: A) Erector spinae B) Rectus abdominis C) Quadratus lumborum D) Transverse abdominis 71 / 201 The force that causes rotation around an axis is called: A) Shear B) Torque C) Friction D) Tension 72 / 201 Pronation of the forearm is performed by: A) Biceps brachii B) Supinator C) Pronator teres D) Flexor carpi radialis 73 / 201 The hip joint is a type of: A) Pivot joint B) Ball-and-socket joint C) Hinge joint D) Gliding joint 74 / 201 The muscle that initiates shoulder abduction is: A) Deltoid B) Supraspinatus C) Infraspinatus D) Teres major 75 / 201 The main action of the subscapularis is: A) Abduction B) Medial rotation of the shoulder C) Flexion D) Lateral rotation 76 / 201 The deltoid muscle is a prime mover for: A) Shoulder adduction B) Shoulder abduction C) Shoulder rotation D) Elbow extension 77 / 201 The line of gravity in a standing posture passes: A) Behind the knee B) Anterior to the ankle C) Through the hip D) Lateral to the spine 78 / 201 A hinge joint permits movement in how many planes? A) Three B) Two C) One D) None 79 / 201 The biceps brachii performs which type of contraction during a slow controlled elbow extension? A) Isometric B) Eccentric C) Concentric D) Reflexive 80 / 201 Supination of the forearm occurs around which axis? A) Sagittal B) Vertical C) Anteroposterior D) Mediolateral 81 / 201 Dorsiflexion occurs at which joint? A) Knee B) Ankle C) Hip D) Shoulder 82 / 201 The direction of muscle fibers in the rectus abdominis is: A) Diagonal B) Circular C) Vertical D) Horizontal 83 / 201 Movement away from the midline in the transverse plane is: A) Extension B) Lateral rotation C) Flexion D) Medial rotation 84 / 201 The muscle primarily responsible for hip flexion is: A) Gluteus maximus B) Sartorius C) Iliopsoas D) Tensor fasciae latae 85 / 201 The gastrocnemius acts over how many joints? A) One B) Two C) Three D) None 86 / 201 Elbow flexion is an example of: A) Abduction B) Flexion C) Rotation D) Extension 87 / 201 The rotator cuff is primarily responsible for: A) Stabilizing the shoulder joint B) Extending the elbow C) Flexing the wrist D) Rotating the hip 88 / 201 A synergist muscle: A) Aids the prime mover B) Opposes motion C) Fixes a joint D) Produces reflexes 89 / 201 The term used for a muscle that opposes the action of the prime mover is: A) Synergist B) Antagonist C) Fixator D) Agonist 90 / 201 The axis for hip abduction occurs in which plane? A) Sagitta B) Frontal C) Transverse D) Horizonta 91 / 201 The scapula moves in which pattern during full shoulder flexion? A) Retraction B) Depression C) Upward rotation D) Protraction 92 / 201 An example of a closed kinetic chain exercise is: A) Leg curl B) Seated knee extension C) Squat D) Bench press 93 / 201 The prime mover for knee extension is: A) Biceps femoris B) Gastrocnemius C) Quadriceps D) Sartorius 94 / 201 During eccentric contraction, the muscle: A) Shortens B) Lengthens C) Remains static D) Twitches rapidly 95 / 201 An isometric contraction is characterized by: A) Muscle lengthening B) Muscle shortening C) No change in muscle length D) Joint rotation 96 / 201 A movement that brings a limb toward the body’s midline is called: A) Adduction B) Abduction C) Extension D) Circumduction 97 / 201 Shoulder abduction occurs in the: A) Sagittal plane B) Frontal plane C) Transverse plane D) Oblique plane 98 / 201 Movement in the frontal plane occurs around which axis? A) Vertica B) Anteroposterior C) Mediolateral D) Longitudinal 99 / 201 The sagittal plane divides the body into: A) Front and back B) Left and right C) Top and bottom D) Upper and lower 100 / 201 Kinesiology is the study of: A) Bones B) Ligaments C) Human movement D) Muscle pathology 101 / 201 Muscle fatigue during high-intensity exercise is due to: A) Glycogen storage B) Lactic acid accumulation C) Increased oxygen supply D) High ATP 102 / 201 Which brain area controls respiratory rhythm? A) Hypothalamus B) Midbrain C) Medulla oblongata D) Cerebellum 103 / 201 In ECG, the T wave represents: A) Atrial depolarization B) Ventricular depolarization C) Ventricular repolarization D) Atrial contraction 104 / 201 The bicarbonate buffer system maintains: A) Sodium balance B) Blood pH C) Chloride transport D) Carbon monoxide levels 105 / 201 What mechanism allows more oxygen to be released at the tissue level? A) Bohr effect B) Decrease in temperature C) Left shift in Hb curve D) Higher pH 106 / 201 The principal catabolic hormone is: A) Insulin B) Cortisol C) Testosterone D) Thyroxine 107 / 201 Vital capacity is the sum of: A) IRV + ERV B) Tidal volume + ERV C) IRV + ERV + TV D) TV + RV 108 / 201 Which parameter increases during isometric exercise? A) VO₂ max B) Blood pressure C) Heart rate only D) Tidal volume 109 / 201 The end-diastolic volume is also known as: A) Afterload B) Ejection fraction C) Preload D) Stroke volume 110 / 201 The major contributor to peripheral resistance is: A) Capillaries B) Veins C) Arterioles D) Venules 111 / 201 The stretch reflex is a: A) Monosynaptic reflex B) Disynaptic reflex C) Polysynaptic reflex D) Pain reflex 112 / 201 In hyperventilation, the blood becomes: A) Acidic B) Alkaline C) Neutral D) High in CO2 113 / 201 Which is the pacemaker potential generator in the heart? A) AV node B) SA node C) Purkinje fiber D) Left bundle branch 114 / 201 Lactate threshold is defined as the point when lactate production exceeds: A) Blood pressure B) Oxygen consumption C) Clearance rate D) Glucose supply 115 / 201 Which of the following is NOT a physiological response to endurance training? A) Increased resting heart rate B) Increased stroke volume C) Improved oxygen utilization D) Increased capillarization 116 / 201 What is the physiological response to high altitude? A) Decrease in RBCs B) Hypercapnia C) Increase in erythropoietin secretion D) Decreased heart rate 117 / 201 Synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction leads to: A) Muscle contraction B) Reflex inhibition C) Pain perception D) Hormonal release 118 / 201 The muscle responsible for quiet inspiration is: A) Internal intercostals B) Abdominals C) Diaphragm D) Sternocleidomastoid 119 / 201 FEV1 is the volume of air expelled in the first second of: A) Tidal breathing B) Forced expiration C) Residual volume D) Passive exhalation 120 / 201 What causes the ‘second wind’ phenomenon in exercise? A) Dehydration B) Improved oxygen delivery C) Blood glucose drop D) Muscle fatigue 121 / 201 Proprioceptors are responsible for sensing: A) Temperature B) Joint position and movement C) Pain D) Touch 122 / 201 Which of the following increases during sympathetic stimulation? A) Digestive activity B) Heart rate C) Urination D) Saliva secretion 123 / 201 What is the primary driver of ventilation during intense exercise? A) Oxygen levels B) Carbon dioxide levels C) Heart rate D) Blood pH 124 / 201 A decrease in baroreceptor sensitivity results in: A) Increased blood pressure B) Decreased blood pressure C) No change in blood pressure D) Reduced cardiac output 125 / 201 The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that: A) Cardiac output is independent of preload B) Greater stretch leads to greater force of contraction C) Stroke volume remains constant D) Systolic pressure is unaffected by preload 126 / 201 Which type of muscle fiber is most fatigue-resistant? A) Type IIx B) Type I C) Type IIb D) Type IIa 127 / 201 What happens to blood flow to the working muscles during exercise? A) Decreases B) Increases C) Stays constant D) Redirected to the gut 128 / 201 Which part of the nervous system is primarily responsible for voluntary muscle control? A) Autonomic B) Sympathetic C) Somatic D) Parasympathetic 129 / 201 Which of the following increases during aerobic training? A) Resting heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Total peripheral resistance D) Diastolic blood pressure 130 / 201 Which system is predominantly active during endurance training? A) Lactic acid system B) Aerobic system C) ATP-PC system D) Creatine phosphate system 131 / 201 The primary energy system for a 400-meter sprint is: A) ATP-PCr B) Anaerobic glycolysis C) Aerobic metabolism D) Oxidative phosphorylation 132 / 201 In spasticity, the velocity-dependent increase in tone is due to overactivity of: A) Stretch reflex B) Golgi tendon organ C) Crossed extensor reflex D) Pain reflex 133 / 201 The respiratory exchange ratio (RER) of 1.0 indicates predominant usage of: A) Protein B) Mixed fuel C) Carbohydrates D) Fat 134 / 201 The main function of the cerebellum in motor control is to: A) Initiate movement B) Perceive pain C) Coordinate and fine-tune movement D) Transmit motor impulses 135 / 201 During exercise, systolic blood pressure: A) Remains unchanged B) Increases C) Decreases D) Increases then falls 136 / 201 The 'all or none' principle applies to: A) Motor unit B) Muscle fiber C) Tendon D) Sarcolemma 137 / 201 Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is mainly caused by: A) Lactic acid B) Eccentric contractions C) Isometric contractions D) ATP depletion 138 / 201 Which system provides the fastest source of ATP? A) Glycolysis B) Beta-oxidation C) Phosphagen system D) Krebs cycle 139 / 201 During prolonged exercise, body temperature is regulated primarily by: A) Hormones B) Muscle contractions C) Hypothalamus D) Spinal reflexes 140 / 201 Which hormone is most responsible for fluid retention during exercise? A) Aldosterone B) Insulin C) Testosterone D) Estrogen 141 / 201 The ventilatory equivalent increases significantly: A) During sleep B) At anaerobic threshold C) During submaximal exercise D) At rest 142 / 201 Cardiac output increases during exercise mainly due to: A) Decrease in stroke volume B) Decrease in heart rate C) Increase in both stroke volume and heart rate D) Decrease in venous return 143 / 201 The primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is: A) Dopamine B) GABA C) Acetylcholine D) Serotonin 144 / 201 Golgi tendon organ primarily detects: A) Muscle tension B) Muscle length C) Joint movement D) Skin stretch 145 / 201 Muscle spindle is sensitive to: A) Muscle tension B) Muscle length and stretch C) Pain D) Temperature 146 / 201 In a healthy adult, the normal value of VO₂ max ranges from: A) 10–20 ml/kg/min B) 25–30 ml/kg/min C) 35–50 ml/kg/min D) 60–90 ml/kg/min 147 / 201 The anaerobic threshold is best described as the point during exercise when: A) Lactate begins to accumulate B) Oxygen consumption peaks C) Heart rate decreases D) VO2 max is achieved 148 / 201 Stroke Volume is defined as the amount of blood ejected from the ventricle per: A) Second B) Beat C) Minute D) Hour 149 / 201 The primary energy system used during the first 10 seconds of a high-intensity activity is the: A) Aerobic system B) Glycolytic system C) ATP-PCr system D) Oxidative phosphorylation 150 / 201 The plantar flexors of the ankle include: A) Tibialis anterior B) Gastrocnemius and soleus C) Peroneus tertius D) Extensor digitorum longus 151 / 201 Which of these is a hinge joint? A) Elbow B) Shoulder C) Hip D) Radioulnar joint 152 / 201 The liver is located in: A) Left upper quadrant B) Right upper quadrant C) Right lower quadrant D) Left lower quadrant 153 / 201 The nerve injured in wrist drop is: A) Ulnar A) Ulnar A) Ulnar D) Musculocutaneous 154 / 201 The thenar muscles are supplied by: A) Ulnar nerve B) Median nerve C) Radial nerve D) Axillary nerve 155 / 201 The diaphragm has how many openings? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 156 / 201 Cauda equina begins at the level of: A) T12 B) L2 C) S1 D) L4 157 / 201 The spinal cord ends at: A) L1–L2 B) L4–L5 C) T12–L1 D) L3–L4 158 / 201 Coracobrachialis is pierced by: A) Musculocutaneous nerve B) Median nerve C) Axillary nerve D) Ulnar nerve 159 / 201 The main weight-bearing bone of the leg is: A) Fibula B) Tibia C) Femur D) Talus 160 / 201 The pulmonary artery carries: A) Deoxygenated blood B) Oxygenated blood C) Lymph D) Mixed blood 161 / 201 Which cranial nerve innervates SCM and trapezius? A) Accessory nerve (XI) B) Vagus nerve C) Facial nerve D) Hypoglossal nerve 162 / 201 The muscle used in jaw closing is: A) Digastric B) Masseter C) Mylohyoid D) Geniohyoid 163 / 201 The anatomical term for the shoulder blade is: A) Clavicle B) Scapula C) Sternum D) Acromion 164 / 201 The ligament that prevents hyperextension of spine is: A) Ligamentum flavum B) Interspinous ligament C) Anterior longitudinal ligament D) Supraspinous ligament 165 / 201 The innermost intercostal muscles help in: A) Inspiration B) Expiration C) Neck flexion D) Shoulder abduction 166 / 201 The bursa commonly inflamed in housemaid’s knee is: A) Suprapatellar B) Prepatellar C) Infrapatellar D) Popliteal 167 / 201 The nerve root of the Achilles reflex is: A) L4 B) L5 C) S1 D) S2 168 / 201 The muscle that flexes both hip and knee: A) Rectus femoris B) Sartorius C) Pectineus D) Iliacus 169 / 201 The knee joint is a: A) Hinge joint only B) Modified hinge joint C) Ball and socket joint D) Pivot joint 170 / 201 The largest carpal bone is: A) Lunate B) Capitate C) Scaphoid D) Hamate 171 / 201 The anatomical snuff box is bounded laterally by: A) Extensor digitorum B) Abductor pollicis longus & Extensor pollicis brevis C) Flexor carpi ulnaris D) Extensor pollicis longus 172 / 201 The nerve root involved in patellar reflex is: A) L5 B) L4 C) S1 D) S2 173 / 201 The palpable landmark at C7 is called: A) Vertebra prominens B) Spinous process of T1 C) Axis D) Atlas 174 / 201 The chief muscle for shoulder abduction (0-15°) is: A) Supraspinatus B) Deltoid C) Trapezius D) Subscapularis 175 / 201 The triceps surae group includes: A) Gastrocnemius and soleus B) Soleus and tibialis posterior C) Peroneus longus and brevis D) Biceps femoris and gastrocnemius 176 / 201 The saddle joint is found at the: A) Elbow B) Hip C) 1st carpometacarpal joint D) Knee 177 / 201 The femoral artery continues as the: A) Internal iliac artery B) Popliteal artery C) Tibial artery D) Dorsalis pedis 178 / 201 SITS muscles refer to: A) Quadriceps group B) Rotator cuff group C) Hamstrings D) Abdominals 179 / 201 The muscle that unlocks the knee is: A) Quadriceps B) Hamstring C) Popliteus D) Sartorius 180 / 201 The nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome is: A) Radial nerve B) Ulnar nerve C) Median nerve D) Axillary nerve 181 / 201 The deltoid muscle is innervated by: A) Radial nerve B) Suprascapular nerve C) Axillary nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve 182 / 201 Cubital tunnel syndrome involves which nerve? A) Radial B) Ulnar C) Median D) Axillary 183 / 201 The strongest ligament in the human body is: A) Ischiofemoral ligament B) Iliofemoral ligament C) Pubofemoral ligament D) Ligamentum teres 184 / 201 Pes anserinus is formed by all except: A) Sartorius B) Gracilis C) Semimembranosus D) Semitendinosus 185 / 201 Erb’s palsy affects which part of the brachial plexus? A) Upper trunk B) Lower trunk C) Lateral cord D) Posterior cord 186 / 201 Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of: A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius C) Iliopsoas D) Adductor longus 187 / 201 The median nerve supplies all except: A) Thenar muscles B) Lateral two lumbricals C) Flexor carpi ulnaris D) Pronator teres 188 / 201 The main nerve supply to diaphragm is: A) Vagus nerve B) Phrenic nerve C) Intercostal nerve D) Thoracic nerve 189 / 201 The bone forming the heel is: A) Talus B) Calcaneus C) Navicular D) Cuboid 190 / 201 The biceps brachii is a: A) Shoulder flexor B) Forearm pronator C) Supinator and elbow flexor D) Wrist flexor 191 / 201 The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the: A) Lesser sciatic foramen B) Greater sciatic foramen C) Obturator foramen D) Femoral canal 192 / 201 The muscle of mastication is: A) Buccinator B) Masseter C) Orbicularis oris D) Sternocleidomastoid 193 / 201 The ligament that prevents anterior displacement of tibia on femur is: A) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) B) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) C) Medial collateral ligament D) Lateral collateral ligament 194 / 201 Foot drop is most commonly due to injury of: A) Tibial nerve B) Common peroneal nerve C) Femoral nerve D) Obturator nerve 195 / 201 The rotator cuff does not include: A) Supraspinatus B) Infraspinatus C) Teres minor D) Teres major 196 / 201 Which muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve? A) Rhomboid B) Trapezius B) Trapezius D) Levator scapulae 197 / 201 The primary extensor of the elbow is: A) Biceps brachii B) Brachialis B) Brachialis D) Anconeus 198 / 201 The muscle responsible for hip flexion is: A) Gluteus maximus B) Iliopsoas C) Sartorius C) Sartorius 199 / 201 The longest nerve in the human body is: A) Femoral nerve B) Sciatic nerve C) Obturator nerve D) Tibial nerve 200 / 201 Which of the following is a lower motor neuron lesion? Stroke Multiple sclerosis Guillain-Barré syndrome Parkinson’s disease 201 / 201 The longest nerve in the human body is: Femoral nerve Sciatic nerve Obturator nerve Tibial nerve Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte